Jamb postpones UTM Exam to 11th April

The Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board has said it will conduct  the 2019 Unified Tertiary Matriculation examination, which more than 1.8 million candidates are expected to sit for nationwide, on Thursday, April 11.

The JAMB Head of Public Affairs, Dr Fabian Benjamin, who disclosed this in a statement released on Wednesday, said candidates were expected to begin the printing of the 2019 UTME notification slips from Tuesday, April 2.

The board added that it had also fixed Monday, April 1 as the new date for its 2019 mock examination, which was earlier scheduled for Saturday, March 23.

It noted that the changes in dates were due to “circumstances” beyond its control.

JAMB had on February 20 postponed both the mock examination and the Unified Tertiary Matriculation Examination because of the rescheduled Presidential and National Assembly elections.

But the board decided on Wednesday that its mock examination would hold on April 1 and the UTME would commence by April 11.

The statement partly reads,” All the details on the slips for the mock examination remain the same except the examination date which is now April 1, 2019.

“The board has also scheduled to conduct the 2019 UTME from Thursday, April 11. Candidates are to begin the printing of the 2019 UTME notification slips from Tuesday, April 2.

“All candidates who registered for the 2019 UTME are to ensure that they print their examination notification slips before the day of the examination as no excuses would be entertained. The public should note that the board will not reschedule the examination for any candidate. Candidates can also print their slips anywhere.

“The board had earlier closed the sale of its UTME and Direct Entry application document on Thursday, February 21. But it was discovered that 41,063 candidates created profiles and were unable to complete their registration formalities after initiating the process.

“In view of this consideration the board has opened the registration portal, effective from Wednesday March 13, for candidates to complete their registration formalities. The portal  will be closed on Friday, March 15.”

WAEC 2019 MAY/JUNE TIMETABLE

*WAEC 2019 MAY/JUNE TIMETABLE [NIGERIA]*

*Monday, 8th April, 2019*
Catering Craft Practice 2 (Essay)** - 9:30 a.m. – 10:20a.m.
Catering Craft Practice 1 (Objective)** -  10:20 a.m. – 11:00 a.m.

Marketing 2 (Essay)** -  9:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
Marketing 1 (Objective)** - 11:30 a.m. – 12:20 p.m.

Salesmanship 2 (Essay)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
Salesmanship 1 (Objective)** - 11:30 a.m. – 12:20 p.m.
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*Tuesday, 9th April, 2019*
Machine Woodworking 2 (Essay)** - 9:30 a.m. – 10:30 a.m.
Machine Woodworking 1 (Objective)** - 10:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.

Tourism 2 (Essay)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:20 a.m.
Tourism 1 (Objective)** - 11:20 a.m. – 12:00 noon

Mining 2 (Essay)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:35 a.m.
Mining 1 (Objective)** - 11:35 a.m. – 12:15 p.m.

Bookkeeping 2 (Essay)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
Bookkeeping 1 (Objective)** - 11:30 a.m. – 12:20 p.m.

Store Keeping 2 (Essay)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
Store Keeping 1 (Objective)** - 11:30 a.m. – 12:20 p.m.

Office Practice 2 (Essay)** - 2:00 p.m. – 4:10 p.m.
Office Practice 1 (Objective)** - 4:10 p.m. – 5:10 p.m.
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*Wednesday, 10th April, 2019*
Catering Craft Practice 3 (Alternative to Practical Work)** - 9:30 a.m. – 10:10 a.m.

Insurance 2 (Essay)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
Insurance 1 (Objective)** - 11:30 a.m. – 12:20 p.m.

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*Thursday, 11th April, 2019*
Animal Husbandry (Alternative B) 2 (Essay)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
Animal Husbandry (Alternative B) 1 (Objective)** - 11:30 a.m. – 12:10 p.m.

Store Management 2 (Essay)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
Store Management 1 (Objective)** - 11:30 a.m. – 12:30 p.m.

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*Monday, 15th April, 2019*
Metalwork 3 (Practical) - 09:30 a.m. – 12:40 p.m. (1st Set)
Metalwork 3 (Practical) - 1:00 p.m. – 4:10 p.m. (2nd Set)

Home Management 3 (Practical) Planning Session – 12.00pm – 1.00pm
Foods and Nutrition 3 (Practical) Planning Session – 2.00pm – 3.00pm

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*Tuesday, 16th April, 2019 to Friday, 10th April, 2019*
Arabic 3 (Oral)
French 3 (Oral)
Physical Education 3 (Performance Test)
Clothing and Textiles 3 (Practical)
Foods and Nutrition 3 (Practical)
Home Management 3 (Practical)

Music 3B (Performance Test)

Date and time for each paper will be arranged by the Council.

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*Tuesday, 16th April, 2019*
Applied Electricity 3 (Practical) - 09:30 a.m. – 12:30 p.m. (1st Set)
Applied Electricity 3 (Practical) - 1:00 p.m. – 4:00 p.m. (2nd Set)

Basic Electricity 3 (Practical)** - 9:30 a.m. – 12:30 p.m. (1st Set)
Basic Electricity 3 (Practical)** - 1:00 p.m. – 4:00 p.m. (2nd Set)


Health Science 3 (Alternative to Practical Work) – 3.00pm – 4:45pm

Health Education 3 (Alternative to Practical Work)** - 3.00pm – 4:45pm
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*Wednesday, 17th April, 2019*
Fisheries (Alternative B) 3 (Practical)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:00 a.m. (1st Set)
Fisheries (Alternative B) 3 (Practical)** - 11:30 a.m. – 1:00 p.m. (2nd Set)


Physical Education 2 (Essay) - 02:00 p.m. – 03:20p.m
Physical Education 1 (Objective) – 03:20p.m – 04:10p.m

Building Construction 2 (Essay) - 3:00 p.m. – 4:00 p.m.
Building Construction 1 (Objective) - 4:00 p.m. – 4:45 p.m.

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*Thursday, 18th April, 2019*
Clerical Office Duties 2 (Essay) - 09:30 a.m. – 11:40 a.m.
Clerical Office Duties 1 (Objective) - 11:40a.m. – 12:30 p.m

Woodwork 3 (Practical)** - 09:30am – 12:30am (1st Set)
Woodwork 3 (Practical)** - 1:00pm – 4:00pm (2nd Set)

Fisheries (Alternative B) 2 (Essay)** - 2:00 p.m. – 4:00 p.m.
Fisheries (Alternative B) 1 (Objective)** - 4:00 p.m. – 4:40 p.m.

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*Tuesday, 23rd April, 2019*
Data Processing 2 (Essay)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
Data Processing 1 (Objective)** - 11:30 a.m. – 12:30 p.m

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*Wednesday, 24th April, 2019*
Home Management 2 (Essay) - 9:30 a.m. – 10:30 a.m.
Home Management 1 (Objective) - 10:30 p.m. – 11:30 a.m.

Electronics 3 (Practical) - 09:30 a.m. – 12:30 p.m. (1st Set)
Electronics 3 (Practical) - 1:00 p.m. – 4:00 p.m. (2nd Set)

Geography 3(Practical and Physical Geography) - 2:00 p.m. – 3:50 p.m.

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*Thursday, 25th April, 2019*
Metalwork 2 (Essay) - 09:30 a.m. – 11:00 a.m.
Metalwork 1 (Objective) - 11:00 a.m. – 12:00 noon

Electronics 2 (Essay) - 2:00 p.m. – 3:00 p.m.
Electronics 1 (Objective) - 3:00 p.m. – 4:00 p.m.

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*Friday, 26th April, 2019*
Biology 2 (Essay) - 9:30 a.m. – 11:10 p.m.
Biology 1 (Objective) – 11:10 a.m. – 12:00 p.m.

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*Monday, 29th April, 2019*
Hausa 2 (Essay)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
Hausa 1 (Objective)** - 11:30 a.m. – 12:30 p.m.

Igbo 2 (Essay)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
Igbo 1 (Objective)** - 11:30 a.m. – 12:30 p.m.

Yoruba 2 (Essay)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
Yoruba 1 (Objective)** - 11:30 a.m. – 12:30 p.m.

Computer Studies 2 (Essay)** - 3:00 p.m. – 4:00 p.m.
Computer Studies 1 (Objective)** - 4:00 p.m. – 5:00 p.m.

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*Tuesday, 30th April, 2019*
Auto Mechanical Works 3 (Practical)** - 09:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m. (1st Set)
Auto Mechanical Works 3 (Practical)** - 12:00 p.m. – 2:00

Woodwork 2 (Essay and Design) - 2:00 p.m. – 4:20 p.m.
Woodwork 1 (Objective) - 4:20 p.m. – 5:00 p.m.

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*Thursday 2nd May, 2019*
Physics 3 (Practical) (Alternative A) - 09:30 a.m. – 12:15 p.m. (1st Set)
Physics 3 (Practical) (Alternative A) - 12:40 p.m – 3:25p.m. (2nd Set)

History 2 (Essay) – 2:00p.m. – 4:00 p.m.
History 1 (Objective) – 4:00 p.m. – 5:00 p.m.

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*Friday 3rd May, 2019*
Literature-In-English 2 (Prose) – 9:30 a.m. – 10:45 a.m.
Literature-In-English 1 (Objective) - 10:45 a.m – 11:45 a.m

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*Monday 6th May, 2019*
Chemistry 3 (Practical) (Alternative A) - 09:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m. (1st Set)
Chemistry 3 (Practical) (Alternative A) - 12:00 noon – 2:00 p.m. (2nd Set)

Auto Mechanics 2 (Essay) - 2:30 p.m. – 4:00 p.m.
Auto Mechanics 1 (Objective) - 4:00 p.m. – 5:00 p.m.

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*Tuesday 7th May, 2019*
Further Mathematics/Mathematics (Elective) 2 (Essay) 2hrs 30mins 09:30 a.m – 12:00 noon
Further Mathematics/Mathematics (Elective) 1 (Objective) 1hr 30mins 3:30p.m – 5:00 p.m.

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*Wednesday 8th May, 2019*
Physics 2 (Essay) - 09:30 a.m. – 11.00 a.m.
Physics 1 (Objective) - 11:00 a.m. – 12:15 p.m.

Visual Art 2 (Essay) - 2:00 p.m. – 4:00 p.m.
Visual Art 1 (Objective) - 4:00 p.m. – 4:50 p.m.

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*Thursday 9th May, 2019*
English Language 2 (Essay) - 09:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
English Language 1 (Objective) - 11:30 a.m. – 12:30 p.m.
English Language 3 (Oral)**/*** - 3:00 p.m. – 3:45 p.m.

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*Friday 10th May, 2019*
Geography 2 (Essay) – 09:30a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
Geography 1 (Objective) - 11:30a.m. – 12:30 p.m.

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*Monday 13th May, 2019*
Foods and Nutrition 2 (Essay) – 9:30a.m. – 10:45 a.m.
Foods and Nutrition 1 (Objective) – 10:45 a.m. – 11:45 a.m.

Financial Accounting 2 (Essay) - 09:30 a.m. – 12:00 noon
Financial Accounting 1 (Objective) - 12:00 noon – 1:00 p.m.

Health Science 2 (Essay) – 2:00p.m. – 3:30 p.m.
Health Science 1 (Objective) - 3:30p.m. – 4:30 p.m.


Health Education 2 (Essay) – 2:00p.m. – 3:30 p.m.
Health Education 1 (Objective) - 3:30p.m. – 4:30 p.m.

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*Tuesday 14th May, 2019*
Physics 3 (Practical) (Alternative B) - 9:30 a.m. – 12:15 p.m. (1st Set)
Physics 3 (Practical) (Alternative B) - 12:40 p.m. – 3:25 p.m. (2nd Set)

Commerce 2 (Essay) – 2:00 p.m. – 4:00p.m
Commerce 1 (Objective) - 4:00 p.m – 4:50 p.m.

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*Wednesday 15th May, 2019*
Biology 3 (Practical) (Alternative A) - 09:30 a.m. – 11:30a.m. (1st Set)
Biology 3 (Practical) (Alternative A) - 12:00 p.m – 2:00 p.m. (2nd Set)

Literature-In-English 3 (Drama & Poetry) – 2:00p.m. – 4:30 p.m.

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*Thursday 16th May, 2019*
Mathematics 2 (Essay) - 09:30 a.m. – 12:00pm
Mathematics 1 (Objective) – 3:00 p.m – 4.30 p.m.

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*Friday 17th May, 2019*
Economics 2 (Essay) - 09:30 a.m. – 11:30am
Economics 1 (Objective) – 11:30am – 12:30 p.m.

Applied Electricity 2 (Essay) - 3:00 p.m. – 4:00 p.m.
Applied Electricity 1 (Objective) - 4:00 p.m. – 5:00 p.m.

Basic Electricity 2 (Essay)** - 3:00 p.m. – 4:00 p.m.
Basic Electricity 1 (Objective)** - 4:00 p.m. – 5:00 p.m.

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*Monday 20th May, 2019*
Christian Religious Studies 2 (Essay) - 09:30 a.m. – 11:30am
Christian Religious Studies 1 (Objective) - 11:30 a.m – 12:30 p.m.

Islamic Studies 2 (Essay) - 09:30 a.m. – 11:30am
Islamic Studies 1 (Objective) - 11:30 p.m – 12:20 p.m.

Chemistry 2 (Essay) - 2:00 p.m. – 4:00 p.m.
Chemistry 1 (Objective) – 4:00 p.m. – 5:00 p.m.

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*Tuesday 21st May, 2019*
Government 2 (Essay) - 09:30 a.m. – 11:30am
Government 1 (Objective) - 11:30 a.m – 12:30 p.m.

Chemistry 3 (Practical) (Alternative B) - 9:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m. (1st Set)
Chemistry 3 (Practical) (Alternative B) - 12:00 noon – 2:00 p.m. (2nd Set)

Visual Art 3A (Drawing) - 2:00 p.m. – 5:00 p.m.

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*Wednesday 22nd May, 2019*
Civic Education 2 (Essay)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
Civic Education 1 (Objective)** - 11:30 a.m. – 12:30 p.m.

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*Thursday 23rd May, 2019*
Business Management 2 (Essay) - 09:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
Business Management 1 (Objective) - 11:30 a.m. – 12:30 p.m.

Computer Studies 3 (Practical)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:30 a.m. (1st Set)
Computer Studies 3 (Practical)** - 12:00 noon – 2:00 p.m. (2nd Set)

Agricultural Science 2 (Essay) - 2:00 p.m. – 4:10 p.m.
Agricultural Science 1 (Objective) - 4:10 p.m. – 5:00 p.m.

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*Friday 24th May, 2019*
Agricultural Science 3 (Practical) - 9:30 a.m. – 11:00 a.m. (1st Set)
Agricultural Science 3 (Practical) - 11:30 a.m. – 1:00 p.m. (2nd Set)

Building Construction 3 (Building Drawing and Essay) - 3:00 p.m. – 5:30 p.m.

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*Monday 27th May, 2019*
Animal Husbandry (Alternative B) 3 (Practical)** - 9:30 a.m. – 11:00 a.m. (1st Set)
Animal Husbandry (Alternative B) 3 (Practical)** - 11:30 a.m. – 1:00 p.m. (2nd Set)

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*Tuesday 28th May, 2019*
Technical Drawing 3 (Sketches, Building and Mechanical Drawing) - 9:30 a.m. – 12:15 p.m.

Technical Drawing 2 (Essay)** - 2:00p.m. – 3:45p.m.
Technical Drawing 1 (Objective)** - 3:45 p.m. – 4:45 p.m.

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*Thursday 30th May, 2019*
Visual Art 3B (Creative Design) - 09:30 a.m. – 12:30 a.m.

Typewriting - 09:30 a.m. – 12:10 p.m. (1st Set)
Typewriting - 12:30 p.m. – 3:10 p.m. (2ndSet)

Arabic 2 (Essay) - 2:00 p.m. – 4:00 p.m
Arabic 1 (Objective) - 4:00 p.m. – 4:50 p.m.


Principles of Cost Accounting 2 (Essay) - 2:00 p.m. – 4:00 p.m.
Principles of Cost Accounting 1 (Objective) - 4:30 p.m. – 5:00 p.m.

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*Friday 31st May, 2019*
French 2 (Essay) - 09:30 a.m. – 10:45 a.m.
French 1 (Objective) - 10:45 a.m. – 11:45 a.m.

Clothing and Textiles 2 (Essay) - 3:00 p.m. – 4:30 p.m.
Clothing and Textiles 1 (Objective) - 4:30 p.m. – 5:30 p.m.
waeclesson.blogspot.com

WAEC 2016 May/June Objectives Questions

1. The dimensions of momentum are    
A. MLT       B. ML^-1T^-1      C. MLT^-1       D. ML^-1T

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2. A student measures the volume of a liquid using a measuring cylinder. What else needs to be measured by the student in order to determine the density of the liquid?  A. Depth of the liquid in the cylinder     B. Mass of the cylinder     C. Mass of the liquid   D. Temperature of the liquid

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3.

The diagram above represents the graph of stress against strain for an elastic wire. The point Q on the graph is the   A. Elastic limit    B. Breaking point   C. Yield point   D. Proportional limit

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4.  A ball is dropped from the top of a tower. Due to air resistance, it reaches terminal velocity. Which of the following statement(s) about its motion is/are correct?    i. The acceleration of the ball is zero.     ii. The net force on the ball is zero.     iii. The velocity of the ball increases.

A. i only                  B. i and ii only             C. ii and iii only           D. i, ii and iii

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5. Which of the following substances lowers the surface tension of water?

A. metal            B. sand           C. detergent           D. paper

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6. An object of volume 400cm³ and 2.5g/cm³  is suspended from a spring balance with half its volume immersed in water. Determine the reading on the spring balance. (Density of water = 1g/cm³)    

   A. 1200g                B. 1000g              C. 800g                D. 400g

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7.

 The diagram given illustrates a force-distance graph for the motion of a wooden block. Determine the work done on the block when moved through a distance of 5m.

A. 4J                      B. 15J                   C. 5J                  D. 100J

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8. The two positions of a body undergoing a uniformly accelerated motion are (10s, 10ms^-1) and (30s, 50m/s) on the velocity-time graph.  Calculate the magnitude of the acceleration of the body.

A. 0.5m/s²     B. 2.0m/s²   C. 10.0m/s²     D. 40.0m/s²

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9. At a birthday party, the celebrant pops a corked fruit wine. If the cork shoots out of the bottle at an angle of 40^o to the horizontal and travels a horizontal distance of 4.50m in 1.25s. Calculate the initial speed of the cork.     A. 4.2m/s     B. 4.7m/s          C. 5.6m/s         D. 7.1m/s

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10. A uniform metre rule is balanced on a fulcrum placed at the 35cm mark by suspending a mass of 120g at the 10cm mark. Calculate the mass of the metre rule.

A. 60g                    B. 80g                C. 120g          D. 200g

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11.

A plank is placed along the path on which a wheel barrow containing sand is pushed at a construction site to prevent it from sticking as illustrated in the diagram given. The large area of the plank prevents the wheel barrow from getting stuck by

A. increasing the reaction on the ground B. increasing the pressure on the ground C. decreasing the pressure on the ground  D. decreasing the weight on the ground

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12. When a body is thrown vertically upwards, its velocity at the maximum height is   A. maximum  B. zero C. double its initial value D. half its initial value

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13. Resonance occurs when one vibrating object causes a second object to vibrate at its own natural

A. amplitude    B. speed    C. frequency    D. intensity

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14. The mouth piece of a telephone handset converts

A. electrical energy to sound energy B. sound energy to electrical energy  C. sound energy to radio wave   D. radio wave to sound energy

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15. Four identical trolleys are loaded with different masses and move along a straight road at the same speed. Which of the trolleys has the greatest inertia.

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16. In the clinical thermometer, the function of the kink is to i. Prevent the back flow of mercury after use. ii. Ensure the back flow of mercury after use. iii. Maintain the thermometric property of mercury. iv. Allow the temperature attained to be read.

A. i only  B. i and ii only   C. i and iv only    D. iii and iv only

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17. Which of the following statements correctly defines the boiling point of a liquid? The temperature at which the

A. saturated vapour pressure equals the atmospheric pressure

B. molecules leave the liquid at a rate equal to the rate at which they return  C. molecules leave the liquid at a rate higher than that at which they return  D. molecules leave the liquid at a rate lower than the rate at which they return

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18.

The diagram above given is used to determine the

A. boiling point of water  B. atmospheric pressure 

C. upper fixed point of a thermometer  D. amount of water in the atmosphere

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19. An aluminium rod of length 1.8m at 10⁰C is heated to  produce a difference in length of 0.007m. Calculate the temperature to which it is heated. (Linear expansivity of aluminium = 2.3 x 10^-5K^-1)

A. 155^oC  B. 160^oC  C. 169^oC  D. 179^oC

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20. A mercury-in-glass thermometer read 4cm at ice point and 29cm at steam point. Calculate the temperature when the mercury level is at 9cm

A. 13^oC  B. 20^oC  C. 33^oC  D. 38^oC

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21. The continuous stirring in the method of mixtures to determine the specific thermal capacity of a substance ensures

A. continuous dissipation of heat to the room 

B. uniform distribution of thermal energy to all parts of the mixture 

C. that the thermal energy is confined to the mixture 

D. that there is rapid heat exchange

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22. Which of the following statements is correct about the effect of dissolved salt on the freezing point of water?

A. the freezing point is lowered  B. the freezing point is increased  C. there is no change in the freezing point

D. the change in the freezing point depends on the temperature of the surrounding

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23. A pressurized perfume bottle is left on the window pane of a room. What happens to the gas molecules of the perfume on a sunny day? They

A. expand  B. collide less often  C. move more rapidly

D. contract

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24. Given that v, f and λ are the velocity, frequency and wavelength of a wave respectively. Which of the following equations is correct?

A. v = f²λ

B. f = v/λ

C. f = v/λ²

D. λ =f/v²

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25. Three letters are placed in front of a plane mirror as illustrated in the diagram below. The image formed is illustrated by

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26. The distance between two successive troughs of a wave is 0.4m. If the frequency of the source is 825 Hz, calculate the speed of the wave

A. 165.0 ms-1

B. 330.0 ms-1

C. 412.5 ms-1

D. 825.0 ms-1

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27. X-rays and infrared rays are both electromagnetic. Which common property do the waves have? Both waves

A. are longitudinal

B. have same frequency

C. have the same wavelength

D. travel at the same speed in a vacuum

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28. The image formed by a concave mirror is real, inverted and magnified, when object is placed

A. at the focus

B. at the centre of curvature

C. beyond the centre of curvature

D. between the centre of curvature and the focus

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29. Total internal reflection. i. is a phenomenon of refraction of light. ii. occurs when light rays travel into a denser medium. iii. occurs when the critical angle is just exceeded. iv. is a phenomenon of reflection of light. Which of the statements above are correct?

A. i and ii only

B. i and iii only

C. i, ii and iii only

D. i, iii and iv only

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30. Complementary colours are those which

A. have the same refractive index

B. have the same wavelength

C. add-up to produce black light

D. add-up to produce white light

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31.

The diagram given illustrates the waveform of a note produced by vibrations in an air column of length L. If the speed of sound in air is V, derive an expression for the frequency of the notes

A. V/L

B. 5VL/2

C. 5L/4V

D. 5V/4L

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32. The pair of musical instruments that works on the vibration of air in pipes is

A. piano and the organ

B. guitar and the flute

C. trumpet and the violin

D. flute and the trumpet

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33. An astronomical telescope has objectives and eye-piece lenses of focal length 3.5m and 5cm respectively. Determine the magnifying power of the telescope when in normal adjustment

A. 70.0

B. 17.5

C. 7.0

D. 0.7

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34. An aluminium cable of diameter 4 x 10^-3m and resistivity 3.0 x 10^-8m has a resistance of 21Ω. Calculate the length of the cable. (p=3.14)

A. 8.0 x 10²m

B. 8.8 x 10³m

C. 8.0 x 10⁴m

D. 8.8 x 10⁴m

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35 .

The ammeter A2 shown in the circuit diagram above reads 3.0 A . Determine the reading of the ammeter A1

A. 12A

B. 9A

C. 7A

D. 2A

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36. The electricity meters in houses measure energy unit consumed in

A. kilowatt-hour

B. volt

C. ampere

D. coulomb

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37. A man and his friend have masses 70kg and 60kg respectively. If they are seated 1.0m apart, calculate the gravitational force of attraction between them. (G = 6.67 x 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2)

A. 1.59 x 10^-14 N

B. 2.80 x 10^-7 N

C. 1.30 x 10^-2 N

D. 6.30 x 10¹³ N

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38. The  p.d  across a parallel-plate capacitor is 10³V. If the distance between the two plates is 10cm. Calculate the magnitude of the electric field strength between the plates.

A. 1.0 x 10⁴Vm-1

B. 1.0 x 10⁵Vm-1

C. 1.5 x 10⁵Vm-1

D. 2.0 x 10⁵Vm-1

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39. Two different materials, rubbed against each other acquired opposite charges when separated. This is an example of charging by

A. induction

B. friction

C. conduction

D. convection

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40. Which of the following factors does not affect the e.m.f of a primary cell? Its

A. size

B. internal resistance

C. operating temperature

D. duration of usage

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41.

Two magnets are used to magnetize a soft iron bar PQ as illustrated in the diagram given. The correct polarity at P and Q respectively

A. S and N

B. N and S

C. S and S

D. N and S

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42. In storing magnets, keepers are used to

A. reduced self-demagnetization

B. cancel the effect of the earth's magnetic field

C. protect the magnet from stray electric field

D. increase the strength of the magnets

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43. A 10µC charge moves with a velocity of 1.0 x 10⁵ ms^-1 at right angle to a uniform magnetic field of flux density 5.0 x 10^-4T. Calculate the force on the charge

A. 5.0 x 10^-5N

B. 5.0 x 10^-4N

C. 5.0 x 10⁵N

D. 5.0 x 10⁶N

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44. Which of the following statements is not correct about steel and soft iron?

A. steel is more magnetized than soft iron

B. permanent magnets are usually made of steel

C. soft iron is more readily magnetized than steel

D. soft iron more readily loses its magnetism than steel

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45. What determines the polarity at the ends of an electromagnet? The

A. magnitude of the current passing through the wire

B. material of the core of the magnet

C. material of the coil

D. direction of current in the wire

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46. How many beta particle(s) are emitted in the radioactive decay of

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 5

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47. The phenomenon by which two light atomic nuclear combine to form a heavy nuclide with the release of energy is known as

A. radioactivity

B. nuclear fusion

C. nuclear fission

D. chain reaction

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48 . Which of the following graphs is correct for the decay of a radioactive substance with a half life of 2 years?

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49. In a p-type semiconductor, the

A. number of holes, are equal to the number of electrons

B. electrical resistivity increases

C. electrons are the majority charge carriers

D. holes are the majority charge carriers

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50. Let Δx be the uncertainty in the measurements of position and Δp the uncertainty in measurement of momentum. The uncertainty principle relation is given as

A. Δx  .  Δp = h

B. Δx  . Δp ≤ h

C. Δx  .  Δp ≥ h

D. Δx  .  Δp < h


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